Hi Mike_James
I wish that was the case! This is a BRAND NEW item. It hasn't actually been sold yet! So there are 0 sales on this item. (The goods have been purchased and received by our factory. The stock isn't physically on shore, so therefore we can't process sales against it).
Given this is the first time we would've ever purchased the item and that the item card was set at 0 cost, that myob would take the purchase cost as standard cost so even if there had been a sale it would be the utem cost.
We thought that perhaps it was an fx variance because the spot rate on the PO was different but then why would an fx variance go to cogs? That would make no sense.
Can you give me an idea of what things I should also check to nut this one out?
Regards
Jilly
Hi JIllyTan , I've only ever seen this situation occur in the circumstances I described.
What was the rate on the PO before converting to a bill? Maybe we can establish a relationship to the COS amount.
Can you screenshot the item history screen?
Do you have the preference/inventory option set to use standard cost on purchases?
What is the standard cost of the item?
Are you sure that there is no sale recorded, or recorded then deleted? Are there any sales orders recorded?
Hi Mike_James
We've done a little investigation. What I've been able to ascertain is the timeline.
1. The stock was received and an assembly order was created on the same day in our inventory management system. T
2. The inventory management system then sent the work order to MYOB as a BILL first, but then about 12 hours later, said system sent the Purchase Order Receipt as a BILL. (Not an ideal scenario).
Therefore MYOB (we assume because we don't know how to back track a transaction audit trail), would've gone into negative inventory at some point....again not ideal. So you were correct. That would've hit COGS.
We're now trying to track where MYOB may have gotten the item cost on the assembly order from given that it would have not had any idea of the item cost yet. (The item card has a $0 standard cost, and the PO receipt wouldn't have been receipted yet).
The inventory management system would've had the correct costs, because as far as it is concerned, the PO Receipt would've updated its internal standard cost. So the work order there reflects the right dollar value.
Thanks JIllyTan , I wasn't aware you were using a 3rd party program. I think you've highlighted the cause, ie the PO receipt being sent through as a bill?
Hi Mike_James
Yes, the PO Receipt is sent as a BILL because from the 3rd party software perspective, the PO is placed there. If we sent it through as a PO we introduce another layer of processing. Unfortunately, that's how our assembly orders come through as well
So when we did the assembly order, that came through as a BILL. The unit cost on there was say $1.06. I would ASSUME given that, the inventory would have gone into negative? Given the item card has $0 standard cost, that would have gone in as negative inventory as 0 cost. So when the PO Receipt came through, it was at the correct cost of $1.36. Again my assumption would be that this would bring Stock On Hand to 0. So now the question I'm trying to answer is where did that $1.06 come from because in the inventory management system, the cost on the work order was $1.36....
At first I thought perhaps it took Weighted Average Cost but then I can't get the math to match. So I'm not sure that's it.
Cheers
Jilly
